[MD] The differentiating nothingness

[David M]

Ham

Try, the source, or essence if you insist, is prior
to being and nothingness but is the source of being
and nothingness, a contradictory identity that cannot
exist one without the other.

Being can only emerge as it manifests the nothing by appearing
and before too long beings just emerge back into the nothing
before the next round of being-nothing emergence.

DM

----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Ham Priday" <hampday1 at verizon.net>
To: <moq_discuss at moqtalk.org>
Sent: Thursday, March 09, 2006 7:21 AM
Subject: Re: [MD] The differentiating nothingness


>
> SA --
>
> Your comments under "Is Morality Innate..." (which were actually an 
> attempt
> to define nothingness) were quite to the point, and they have stimulated 
> my
> thinking about the Creation hypothesis.  Forgive my persistence, but back
> around the 20th of February, after agreeing that nothingness is the
> differentiator of beingness, you challenged my characterization of
> proprietary awareness as the "not-" of not-other.
>
>> This explanation seems to depend on a use of one word
>> (which is "not" in not-other of Essence) to provide an
>> explanation about negation, but this kind of explanation
>> does not provide a firm answer.  Negation or nothingness
>> in comparison to Essence is a renegade put into existence
>> by finitude itself.  Yet, to have finitude nothingness
>> needs to be present.
>
> I saw the logic of what you were saying and voiced agreement -- even
> admitting that "not-other" could not be broken up because of its specified
> meaning.  Separating the "not-" out of this copula not only didn't provide 
> a
> "firm answer", it was illogical.  Since then I've had second thoughts. 
> Here
> are the ideas that trouble me concerning the remainder of your challenge 
> ...
>
> I still believe existence comes about as a result of the primary negation 
> of
> Essence.  The question is: What does Essence negate?  It seems to me that 
> we
> have a choice of three options:
> 1)  It is conceivable that Essence could negate itself -- that is, its
> "identity".
> 2)  Essence could negate Value, which is its sensible or esthetic
> manifestation to the negate.
> 3)  Essence could negate Nothingness if it POSSESSED nothingness (which is
> problematic, since Essence is absolute "is-ness").
>
> I'm still inclined to go with #3, because it accounts for the negate that 
> is
> a critical part of my hypothesis.  I justify this by reasoning that 
> Essence
> does not possess nothingness BECAUSE it is always negated from Essence. 
> In
> other words, nothingness is, was, and would remain an "other" to Essence,
> except that the negation serves to make it "not-other".  I'd appreciate
> hearing your opinion as to whether this makes sense -- not whether you
> believe it, but is it a logical assertion?  (I know you think nothingness 
> is
> a "renegade" of finitude -- an excellent analogy, by the way -- but I may 
> be
> able to persuade you otherwise.)
>
> As to the objection in your first sentence (above), your logic is correct
> insofar as "not-other" is perceived from the absolute perspective. 
> However,
> when we speak of Essence as "actualized" (in the Cusan sense) it is no
> longer unified but relational, and the logic of a relative system
> (existence) allows contrarieties such as duality and opposition. 
> Therefore,
> I submit that from the actualized perspective it is perfectly logical to 
> say
> that what is not-other to Essence is both the existential "not-" and 
> "other"
> in the same way that it is both the experiential subject and object.
>
> Why isn't this a valid argument?
>
> Don't feel you have to rush back with an answer.  Think it over, and give 
> me
> the benefit of your considered opinion.
>
> (Incidentally, I've sent a "reminder" to Clyde Miller that he promised to
> get back to me on Cusa's "first principle", but have not yet heard from
> him.)
>
> Essentially yours,
> Ham
>
>
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