[MD] The Oriental intellect(ual) level

[skutvik at online.no]

All MOQ discuss. Akshay the Hindu in particular.

The question (sparked by Pirsig's letter to Paul Turner) about a 
(separate) Oriental intellectual level has intrigued me ever since.  

    "The argument that Oriental cultures would not be 
    classified as intellectual is avoided by pointing out that 
    the Oriental cultures developed an intellectual level 
    independently of the Greeks during the Upanishadic 
    period of India at about 1000 to 600 B.C. (These dates 
    may be off.)" 

Paul addressed Pirsig due to a prolonged discussion over my 
thesis that the Intellectual level emerged with the Greeks and 
consequently=SOM. Pirsig's answer however leaves the issue as 
enigmatic as ever. For instance no one has argued that "Oriental 
cultures can't be classified as intellectual", as for me I have just 
argued that intellect=S/O and if so it's S/O be it in India or on the 
far side of the moon.  

As I interpret things he (inadvertently) admits that the Greeks 
"developed" intellect (meaning =SOM) and that the Upanishads 
period corresponds to the Greeks' albeit "independently". Then 
the question is what the Upanishads period is/was in the Indian 
culture?  In LILA he says:   

    "But what made the Hindu experience so profound was 
    that this decay of Dynamic Quality into static quality was 
    not the end of the story. Following the period of the 
    Brahmanas came the Upanisadic period and the flowering 
    of Indian philosophy.  Dynamic Quality re-emerged within 
    the static patterns of Indian thought."  

Even if this is at the end of the book I believe it's from an earlier 
stage while the Dynamic/Static relationship was the big issue, 
thus "this decay of Dynamic Quality into static quality" is without 
reference to any particular level.  

Yet, what does it say in a MOQ context?  If "decay" means static 
"this decay"=the social level, must be if "the Upanishadic 
period"= the intellectual level. Thus "... the flowering of Indian 
philosophy" corresponds to the flowering of Greek philosophy and 
that it resulted in an "Indian SOM".  Any thoughts?   

Bo