[MD] Mereological nihilism

[Ham Priday]

 Hi Marsha --



> You seem to want a metaphysics to go by a static definition that
> you've found in a compilation representing primarily a Western
> point-of-view.  And it seems that Rune's dictionary was
> published in 1942.

I have the 15th edition which was published in 1964.  But since Philosophy 
is at least 2,000 years old, and most of the theories were developed in the 
last 500 years or so, is the publication date really critical?
You asked me what metaphysics means.  Webster's Collegiate notes that the 
term was originally used to distinguish the writings of Aristotle that "came 
after" his "physical works".  It defines Metaphysics as "a division of 
philosophy that includes ontology and cosmology".   Does that make it any 
clearer?

Yes, I'm a "westerner", and my concepts reflect the Western view as 
theorized by Plato, Plotinus, Eckhart, Cusanus, Hegel, Kant, Schopenhauer, 
James, Merrill-Wolff, etc.  Standard (not "static") definitions are 
important in articulating philosophical concepts in a reasonable manner for 
the western mind.  I do not discount Eastern ideas that are relevant to my 
philosophy, but it would be inappropriate for me to try to tailor it to the 
precepts of Hinduism, Buddhism, or Shintoism, especially since they have 
little relevance to my concepts.

Regards,
Ham