[MD] Ironistic Metaphysics
Steve Peterson
peterson.steve at gmail.com
Sun Aug 9 16:49:13 PDT 2009
Hi DMB, Gav, John, Bo,
I waited for Matt to weigh in, but it looks like he's staying out of
this one.
> Steve said:
> What we would need to adopt any of these systems and what no one has
> ever invented is a method that stands outside of metaphysics that
> tells us how to choose between such systems. I think the recognition
> of the shortcomings of the project of creating a metaphysical system
> is what Rorty means by ironism. To be ironist about a metaphysical
> system is to use it for whatever purposes it is useful for without
> thinking of it as closer to the one true account of the way things
> really are than any other since the ironist when it comes to
> metaphysics doesn't think of metaphysics as the project of getting
> past some Kantian barrier between language and reality as it really
> is--that we can get more or less in touch with reality by coming up
> with the right sentences to describe reality and holding them to be
> true. So my question about whether Pirsig is an ironist is concerned
> with whether Pirsig sees the MOQ getting us in touch with reality as
> it really is...Or something like that. I'm s
> till hoping that Matt or someone will jump in and tell me what it is
> I want to ask.
>
> dmb says:
>
> Okay, thanks. Here I can see a similarity with what Pirsig is saying
> but there also seems to be a very importance difference. Both of them
> would deny that they have crossed that Kantian barrier and both of
> them would deny that our sentences correspond to reality as it really
> is. In other words, they are both rejecting the notion of a single
> objective truth or the correspondence theory of truth. Although this
> description doesn't use the terms "subjective" or "objective", we can
> still see that this would be Rorty's way of rejecting SOM. I strongly
> suspect that this is the sort of thing Paul Turner had in mind when he
> said that Rorty's view of things is about 90% the same as Pirsig's
> view. But I want to talk about where that remaining 10% resides.
Steve:
I'm glad you see it that way. I think the "paintings in a gallery"
image shows Pirisg's ironist side. I think this term might be a good
way of talking about Bo's use of metaphysics and Pirsig and Rorty's
ironism.
DMB:
> It seems to me that the ironist has to be ironic because he denies
> that the Kantian barrier could ever be crossed but the MOQ's attack on
> SOM has a way of getting unstuck. It says the Kantian barrier is a
> product of the underlying metaphysical assumptions, not a schism in
> nature of things as they really are. Further, the MOQ says there are
> no "things" as they really are, no Kantian things-in-themselves.
Steve:
My reading of Rorty is that he would completely agree. His
anti-essentialism denies that there is an intrinsic nature of a thing
that we need to worry about. To know a thing is to me able to use a
thing or put it in relation to some other thing rather than to develop
a relationship with some essence of the thing as it really is beyond
appearances.
DMB:
> I mean, I think Pirsig DOES see the MOQ as a way of getting us in
> touch with reality as it really is but, because of the concept of pure
> experience, the primary empirical reality is not composed of "things"
> or any other kind of objective, pre-existing reality. In the MOQ,
> experience is reality and so there is no such barrier to cross in the
> first place.
Steve:
Though Rorty doesn't talk experiences and thinks of knowledge as a
linguistic activity, he also doesn't see anyway for language to be a
barrier between us and reality. It is instead a way of using reality to
get what we want or predict what others will do.
DMB
> But I still like to know what it means to have a "final vocabulary" or
> a "metavocabulary". I always understood the word to mean the total
> body of words either in the language as a whole or the total body of
> words knows to a particular user. It seems pretty clear that Rorty's
> terms refer to subsets within the total body (final) and to something
> beyond that total body of words (meta). This doesn't make sense in
> such a way that there must be some big idea missing that would make
> sense of it. It might seem like a flippant question, but in what sense
> can a person have more than one vocabulary? Is he talking about the
> various kinds of jargon used in various fields or is he talking about
> the examination of metaphysical assumptions as such? The use of such
> terms really needs some context, you know? Where is Rorty coming from
> with these terms and what's he trying to do with them?
>
Steve:
I haven't read enough yet to try to unpack these terms.
Best,
Steve
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