[MD] continental and analytic philosophy

[david buchanan]

dmb said to Matt:
To gloss over the difference between language and experience is a bit ham-handed. ... Given the heated conversations that are going on in the journals about  this difference between experience and language, I really don't see how your claim could be true.

Matt replied:

Because philosophers disagree...? I didn't say I wasn't simplifying or hamily summing up my opinion.  Am I not allowed my opinion, or to summarize my opinion without offering a dissertation on the subject? ...If you want to "see" how my "claim could be true," read Richard Rorty.  You and everyone else is well-aware that I'm just stealing his stuff.  If you want to reject Rorty because most people in "the journals" reject him, that's fine, but....



dmb says:

Yes, of course you're allowed to have an opinion. And I'm allowed to challenge that opinion, right? 

But I sincerely wonder if anyone shares your opinion. If there is any work out there that makes this claim about experience and language, I'd definitely like to know about it. Do you have a name or a title or anything like that? Part of the reason I'm so skeptical is simply that I've never seen such a thing. All the sources I've seen say the difference is not just real, but that it is seemingly irreconcilable. As far as I know, you're the only one who makes a claim to the contrary. If I'm wrong about that and you can show me that, I'd be grateful.


 		 	   		  
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