[MD] science, religion and culture

ian glendinning psybertron at gmail.com
Tue Jan 2 06:06:25 PST 2007


Thanks Gav, I was just being lazy,

Since I'd never really seen Hobbe's Leviathan as "benign" anyway, from
my perspective naturally, it would explain why I really couldn't see
much distinction.

Face saved. Thanks.

Ian

On 1/1/07, gav <gav_gc at yahoo.com.au> wrote:
> 'leviathan' (you mean hobbes and not the bible i
> presume) and the giant are pretty much the same cept
> one is overtly pejorative (giant), whilst the other is
> overtly benign: the instrument of maintaining the
> 'common wealth' (do the oxymoron with me...).
>
> hobbes was into hierarchical society, a la monarchy
> especially, so he needed to justify the continuation
> of disproportionate power and wealth distribution,
> which is how the giant (or leviathan) seduces: dreams
> of avarice.
>
> of course the lowest classes aren't seduced at all:
> they are just beaten down and told to shut up....
>
> a 'leviathan' is how the giant sees and justifies
> itself. but if there ever was a time for such a big
> bro the time is now well past.
>
>
>
>
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