[MD] What is SOM?
skutvik at online.no
skutvik at online.no
Tue Aug 12 08:24:25 PDT 2008
Gav, Ian, All
10 Aug. Gav wrote:
> bo:
> Yes, but the MOQ has no "Western industrial
> > alienation" level so
> > the question still stands. Pirsig says that the MOQ does
> > not abolish
> > the S/O distinction so it must have a place inside the MOQ,
> > and -
> > as in my well known opinion - it's the intellectual
> > level, everything
> > points to such an interpretation.
> gav: SOM is/was the dominant 'operating system' or paradigm of western
> intellect. in the east i think we cannot say this....but surely they have
> intellect bo. therefore SOM cannot be equated with the intellectual level.
> QED.
You see SOM it as "a paradigm of western intellect" while I see it
(SOM) as intellect itself and I claim that the Orientals had their
intellectual (S/O) bout during the Upanishads period. If SOM was
an intellectual operating system then the social level was an
INTELLECTUAL operating system too.
Bo
-----------------------------
The same date Ian wrote:
> You can't get away that lightly Bo,
> If you really are agreeing with that ... as I thought we had in the
> past anyway ... then our only disagreement is how this is actually
> expressed in the MoQ levels and patterns.
> The MoQ intellectual level MUST be more than SOMism .... SOMism will
> just find itself to be (or to have been) a "static pattern" as MoQ
> intellect (and language) continues to evolve.
Why MUST it? Unless you (too) see the 4th. level as "a way of
thinking" (see above for Gav) Or "manipulation of symbols" that
Pirsig introduced to secure another decade of frustration and
bickering. MOS is language in plainspeak with its origin at the
social level.
> The historical dividing line between social and intellectual may well
> be the original evolution of SOMism, and that will remain as a
> historial fact that once distinguished intellectual from social, but
> the "definition" of intellectual continues to evolve.
You mean that Intellect served its parent (social) level before it
emerged with a purpose of its own as SOM? I accept that, yet
intellect WAS the S/O distinction from the outset. If we look at
history Mediaeval Times was Greek thinking (SOM in our lingo)
succumbing to social value. During these centuries church
scholars used Greek thinking to (objectively) underpin religion
(Aristotles was a Church Father) This was intellect reverting to
social service, but it couldn't be used that way forever, it broke free
anew .. and the rest is history
Bo
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