[MD] Emptiness & Quantum Mechancics

[Dan Glover]

Hello everyone

On Tue, Oct 12, 2010 at 8:47 PM, X Acto <xacto at rocketmail.com> wrote:
>
>
>
>
> RMP:
> I think the trouble is with the word, “experience.” It can be used in
> at least three ways. It can be used as a relationship between an object
> and another object (as in Los Angeles experiencing earthquakes.) It is
> more commonly used as a subject-object relationship. This
> relationship is usually considered the basis of philosophic empiricism
> and experimental scientific knowledge.
>
> In a subject-object metaphysics, this experience is between a preexisting
> object and subject, but in the MOQ, there is no pre-existing
> subject or object. Experience and Dynamic Quality become
> synonymous. Change is probably the first concept emerging from this
> Dynamic experience. Time is a primitive intellectual index of this
> change. Substance was postulated by Aristotle as that which does not
> change. Scientific “matter” is derived from the concept of substance.
> Subjects and objects are intellectual terms referring to matter and nonmatter.
> So in the MOQ experience comes first, everything else comes
> later. This is pure empiricism, as opposed to scientific empiricism,
> which, with its pre-existing subjects and objects, is not really so pure.
>
> Ron:
> I have to say, I have a rather large bone to pick with Bob on his connection
> with Aristotles "substance" and scientific materialism.
>  The philosophical term ‘substance’ corresponds to the Greek ousia, which means
> ‘being’, transmitted via the Latin substantia, which means ‘something that
> stands under or grounds things’.  Aristotle said that "meaning"  grounds things.
> And the most basic genera, is betterness or the "good".
>
> Either Bob did'nt read metaphysics himself, or he did'nt read it thoroughly
> enough
> to understand that Aristotles "substance" was his "Quality".
>
> Sure, to a lay audience a bogeyman to lay the whole western crisis on was
> rhetorically useful but to a professional community he really should have delved
>  a bit deeper and did a tad more homework in this area.

Hi Ron

Thank you for writing... I am always happy to dicsuss the LC
annotations. I am only passing familiar with Aristole so I did a quick
search on ousia:

Ousia (Οὐσία) is the Ancient Greek noun formed on the feminine present
participle of εἶναι (to be); it is analogous to the English participle
being, and the modern philosophy adjectival ontic. Ousia is often
translated (sometimes incorrectly) to Latin as substantia and
essentia, and to English as substance and essence; and (loosely) also
as (contextually) the Latin word accident — [1] which conflicts with
the denotation of symbebekós, given that Aristotle uses symbebekós in
showing that inhuman things (objects) also are substantive.[2]

The Greek philosophers Plato and Aristotle used ousia in their
ontologies; their denotations are the contemporary philosophic and
theological usages. Aristotle used ousia in creating animal phyla in
biology, ousia denoting that which is shared: essence, form, and
nature, and hypostasis denoting that which is particular: an
individual instance or thing.[verification needed][dubious –
discuss][citation needed]

Much later, Martin Heidegger said that the original meaning of the
word ousia was lost in its translation to the Latin, and,
subsequently, in its translation to modern languages. For him, ousia
means Being, not substance, that is, not some thing or some being that
"stood"(-stance) "under"(sub-). Moreover, he also uses the bi-nomial
parousia-apousia, denoting presence-absence, and hypostasis denoting
existence.

 [Wikipedia]

Dan comments:

I am guessing that unless a person reads ancient Greek, they are
relying on a translation and translations are often incorrect, since
our 21st century culture differs from the ancient Greek culture.
Nevertheless, it seems that it wasn't Aristotle who denoted ousia as
being but rather Heidegger. Is that your feeling too?

Thank you,

Dan



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