[MD] Why does Pirsig write everybody's right about mind and matter although his theses imply the opposite?
Tuukka Virtaperko
mail at tuukkavirtaperko.net
Sat Oct 29 03:51:53 PDT 2016
dmb,
>
> Tuukka asked:
> If logic is psychical how can pure experience logically precede subject and object? After all, logic doesn't exist at the stage where
> this precession should take place.
>
>
>
> dmb says:
>
> As odd or paradoxical as it may sound, pure experience not only logically precedes subjects and objects, it also logically precedes logic. The strangeness of this claim evaporates when you see that having an experience is one thing but talking about it or reflecting on it is a different thing.
Tuukka:
"Pure experience" is rhetorical. If you mention logic in this context
you're mentioning logic in a rhetorical context. I don't mean that. I
mean logic in a dialectical context.
> But this is not really related to the criticism I was offering either. Let me know if you're interested in that.
Tuukka:
Previous experience indicates that your input is useful because you
present arguments that require a dialectical response I haven't thought
of before. The downside is that you don't seem to do dialectic, only
rhetoric, and you don't seem to understand their difference. In any case
I'm confused by the way how, instead of presenting your criticism, you
ask me whether I'm interested in your criticism. I need some time to
think about this.
Regards,
Tuk
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